Avert timing question

[Shostak]

Originally Posted by Axly Suregrip

Your method treats the target creature inconsistently the first action phase while under the affects of Avert.

How so? According to my interpretation, no subject of Avert is compelled to move instead of act on the turn the spell was cast. That's pretty consistent.

That is, for an engaged figure under this spell they are forced to disengage.

That is your interpretation for the way Avert works on the turn it was cast, not mine.

Side issue: I don't understand your situation 6. How is it the disengaged target moved their full movement and did no comply during movement to being under the affects of Avert? (Not important relevant to my point, just looked like a false scenario)

Because movement on Turn 1 ended before the Avert spell could be cast.