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Chris Rice · 02-23-2019, 01:43 PM

It never even occurred to me that anyone would think there was "minimum damage" so I don't know where this idea came from.

The rules are clear. 2d6-2 (for example) has a range from 0-10; you roll 2 dice and take 2 from the result. That's it. Simple.

With Wizardry, I can see the argument for minimum damage, as the Wizard has had to expend their own ST to cause the damage. It wasn't in the original rules, so I don't really care for it, but I can live with it if needs be. I may just ignore it.

02-23-2019, 01:43 PM	#21
Chris Rice Join Date: Dec 2017 Location: London Uk, but originally from Scotland	Re: is there a minimum damage? how... It never even occurred to me that anyone would think there was "minimum damage" so I don't know where this idea came from. The rules are clear. 2d6-2 (for example) has a range from 0-10; you roll 2 dice and take 2 from the result. That's it. Simple. With Wizardry, I can see the argument for minimum damage, as the Wizard has had to expend their own ST to cause the damage. It wasn't in the original rules, so I don't really care for it, but I can live with it if needs be. I may just ignore it.