09-28-2020, 10:55 AM | #1 |
Join Date: Jun 2008
Location: Boston area
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Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.
If you roll a 1 for damage 1d-1, does it do 0 pts or 1 pt?
I assume 0, but just thought I'd doublecheck that the minimum isn't 1. |
09-28-2020, 11:14 AM | #2 |
Join Date: Oct 2015
Location: New England
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Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.
Unless otherwise specified, such as in the case of Fireball, yes, you can do zero damage with a successful hit with a weapon that inflicts damage with a subtractive modifier equal to--or greater than--the number of dice damage.
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09-28-2020, 11:43 AM | #3 |
Join Date: Jun 2008
Location: Boston area
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Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.
Thanks for the confirmation.
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09-28-2020, 01:58 PM | #4 |
Join Date: Aug 2018
Location: Aerlith
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Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.
There is lively discussion about this when it comes to how various GMs house-rule minimum damage, but yes, the RAW is that 0 damage results are possible due to weapon dice modifiers.
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Shadekeep - TFT Tools & Adventures |
09-28-2020, 04:59 PM | #6 |
Join Date: Jan 2018
Location: Portland, Maine
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Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.
One could consider 0 damage as bruising or superficial cuts. Not enough pain to inflict 1 point of damage.
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