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Old 09-28-2020, 10:55 AM   #1
phiwum
 
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Default Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.

If you roll a 1 for damage 1d-1, does it do 0 pts or 1 pt?

I assume 0, but just thought I'd doublecheck that the minimum isn't 1.
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Old 09-28-2020, 11:14 AM   #2
Shostak
 
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Default Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.

Unless otherwise specified, such as in the case of Fireball, yes, you can do zero damage with a successful hit with a weapon that inflicts damage with a subtractive modifier equal to--or greater than--the number of dice damage.
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Old 09-28-2020, 11:43 AM   #3
phiwum
 
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Default Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.

Thanks for the confirmation.
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Old 09-28-2020, 01:58 PM   #4
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Default Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.

There is lively discussion about this when it comes to how various GMs house-rule minimum damage, but yes, the RAW is that 0 damage results are possible due to weapon dice modifiers.
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Old 09-28-2020, 02:25 PM   #5
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Default Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.

If you add a minimum damage then thrown rocks would do as much damage as rat bites.
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Old 09-28-2020, 04:59 PM   #6
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Default Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.

One could consider 0 damage as bruising or superficial cuts. Not enough pain to inflict 1 point of damage.
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Old 09-29-2020, 07:56 AM   #7
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Default Re: Really trivial question about damage 1d-1.

Quote:
Originally Posted by JohnPaulB View Post
One could consider 0 damage as bruising or superficial cuts. Not enough pain to inflict 1 point of damage.
Exactly. It's a glancing blow.
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